Wednesday, August 8, 2012


Hebrews 4:15, ". . . one who in every respect has been tempted as we are, yet without sinning."

Whenever we are tempted, even though we don't give in,
is not the base desire itself a subtle form of sin?
If Jesus had no urges for a woman sexually,
then was he really tempted at all points like you and me?
If Jesus had those feelings tempting him from deep within,
how can we say that he was just like us, yet without sin?
Now, that's another paradox that I have thought about
  for years, and one that I admit I haven't figured out.

(from Now, That's a Miracle!)

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